Pharmacy Technician Practice Test 2024 (CPhT | ExCPT)

1) You receive an order for amoxicillin 250 mg for a 12-year-old child who weighs 88 lbs. The adult dosage is 500 mg. You call the prescription to the attention of the pharmacist because:

2) An adult dose of Kefl in is 1 g. What is the dose for a child weighing 50 lb?

3) Your order is for ethambutol 10 mg/kg for a child weighing 88 lb. One dose =

4) Your order is for cyclosporine 150 mg po. You have a solution in stock that is 100 mg/mL. Amount dispensed =

5) Your order is for sulfisoxazole susp. 300 mg po stat. You have a solution in stock that is 250 mg/5 mL. Amount dispensed =

6) Your order is for digoxin elixir 0.25 mg qid. Your stock is 0.5 mg/10 mL. Amount dispensed per dose

7) You receive a prescription for Roxicet. The following must be present on the prescription form

8) A former patient comes to the pharmacy with a prescription. His address has changed. You should:

9) A patient comes to the pharmacy with a new prescription and says that he experienced a severe rash from the prescription that he had fi lled a few days ago. You should:

10) An example of a therapeutic duplication is:

11) You receive a prescription for Amoxil, ordered “dispense as written.” You check the stock and find Trimox. You:

12) A prescription for lamotrigine includes the instructions “i tab qd w/meal.” What auxiliary label might be affi xed to the dispensing container?

13) The dosage strength of the medication dispensed is not required on the label if

14) Which of the following are involved in the practice of aseptic technique?

15) Aseptic technique is used for parenteral injections only, because:

16) You have a bottle of drug solution. The label does not state the concentration of the drug in the solution, just the amount of drug and the volume of liquid in the container. To dispense 30 mg of this drug, you can

17) You are a retail pharmacy technician and receive a prescription for cimetidine, written by Dr. John Smith. The DEA number is AS3284066. You should:

18) An example of a third-party payor would be:

19) 100 × 0.002

20) \frac14 + \frac12

21) \frac34 ÷ \frac12

22) xxi + xiv = ?

23) 1:1,000 ___ mg/mL

24) 2% = ___ mg/mL

25) How many grams of drug are in 10 mL of a 7% solution?

26) How many milligrams of drug are in 5 mL of a 1:100 solution?

27) How many milligrams of epinephrine are in 0.5 mL of a 1:100 solution?

28) A solution contains 0.5% drug. If a patient uses 0.2 mL of solution, what is the dose?

29) You have 10 mL of a 1% solution and need to dispense a 2 mg dose. How many doses are in the bottle?

30) A suppository contains 5% zinc oxide. How much zinc oxide is contained in a 5 g suppository?

31) When using a graduated cylinder made of glass, an accurate reading of the amount of fluid measured would be made by looking at the:

32) To measure 15 mL of cough syrup, a ______ should be used.

33) A suspension of insulin was removed from the refrigerator, and a dose of 100 units was withdrawn to fill an order for patient Hill. The suspension was then left out on the counter for an hour, and the same amount was withdrawn for patient Smith. The dosage for patient Hill:

34) An order is received for 10 mL of 0.2% calcium gluconate solution, which is to be taken orally. You would measure the solution using:

35) Your order is for prednisolone 0.05 g po q6h. You have 25 mg tablets in stock. How many will be dispensed for one dose?

36) Your order is for Digibind 200 mcg po. Your stock is 0.1 mg tabs, scored in fourths.

37) our order is for penicillin 600,000 units po. You have 250 mg tablets in stock. The label says that one 250 mg tablet contains 400,000 units. The tablets are scored in half.

38) Who may recommend an over-the-counter (OTC) medication to a patient?

39) What is the drip rate in mL/h of the continuous 10 μg/h infusion?

40) Which of the following prevention strategies should be utilized to decrease medication errors?

41) Which organization is solely dedicated to medication error prevention?

42) Which of the following juices may interact with medications?

43) Which of the following is an example of a schedule-III medication?

44) Which of the following recalls is related to serious health problems from dangerous or defective products?

45) If a medication is taken qod, this means when should it be taken?

46) Which of the following is not required on a valid prescription?

47) A patient is instructed to take 1 tsp qid. How many milliliters will the patient take daily?

48) Which of the following is not a side effect of Augmentin?

49) What is another term for TPN?

50) Which organization requires that material safety data sheets be available?

51) When can a medication that is scheduled III to V be refilled?

52) Which of the following are high-alert medications?

53) Compulsive gambling is a side effect of which medication?

54) Drugs are intended for use in which of the following?

55) Which of the following medications can become toxic after its expiration date?

56) If a drug is not covered on the approved list of medications, it is not on which of the following?

57) Which of the following is not a biometric identifier?

58) If a medication should be taken after meals, which sig code should be used?

59) Fentanyl transdermal is in which DEA class?

60) What basic information is not contained in the patient profile?

61) How many digits are in an NDC?

62) What type of medications can easily be cut in half?

63) What do the first 4 or 5 digits of the NDC code represent?

64) When a medication is given to a patient, it must be indicated on which of the following?

65) Which of the following antibiotics may be used for acne?

66) Which of the following is not an advantage of an electronic health record?

67) What is the term used to describe a bill of sale of products ordered?

68) Which of the following policies would a patient not be billed any fees for services?

69) Which of the following is available as an injection?

70) Which of the following medications is permitted to be dispensed in nonchildproof containers?

71) Which form is used to document loss or theft of C-II medications?

72) Which is an example of a drug–drug interaction?

73) If a patient is eligible for Medicare Part A, they also have the option of enrolling in which part of Medicare?

74) When is the effective date on an insurance card?

75) Lisinopril can potentially increase which electrolyte?

76) Which of the following organizations is devoted entirely to medication error prevention?

77) Which of the following would be found on a hospital medication order but not a retail prescription?

78) Which of the following must be present on the written prescription at the time of acceptance?

79) How many 15-mL individual prescriptions can you dispense from a 1-pt stock bottle?

80) A patient’s total daily dose of nifedipine is 60 mg. The dose is to be divided q8h. How many milligrams of nifedipine should be given for each dose?

81) Which of the following are units used in the apothecary system?

82) The concentration of which of the following medications can be expressed in w/v percentage?

83) You receive a prescription from a veterinarian for a 1:400 solution of furosemide. You only have 20-mg furosemide tablets in stock. How many tablets do you need in order to compound 120 mL of the furosemide solution?

84) How many milliliters are in a 12-fl oz prescription bottle of guaifenesin?

85) You receive a prescription for insulin NPH 12 units bid. Your pharmacy stocks insulin NPH 100 U/mL 3-mL vials. How many full days will 1 vial last if used as directed?

86) How many milligrams of epinephrine is required to prepare 20 mL of a 2.5% solution?

87) The pediatric dose of ibuprofen is 5 mg/kg. How many milligrams of ibuprofen should a child weighing 30 lb receive? (Round to the nearest milligram.)

88) You receive a prescription for diphenoxylate/atropine capsules. The prescription states to dispense lx. How many capsules should be dispensed>

89) Convert 1250 μg to mg.

90) ow many grams of hydrocortisone are in a 60-g tube of 2% hydrocortisone cream?