ACLS Pretest Questions Answers 2024

ACLS Pretest Questions Answers 2024: This comprehensive set of 30 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) is designed for individuals preparing for the Advanced Cardiac Life Support (ACLS) exam. It serves as a perfect tool to assess your readiness and familiarize yourself with the types of questions you can expect on the actual exam.

Each question in this set has been meticulously curated to cover the key concepts, principles, and protocols relevant to ACLS, including adult resuscitation, cardiovascular emergencies, stroke management, and airway management, among others. The test is an excellent way to gauge your understanding of these vital topics and identify areas where further study may be needed.

The questions have been drafted to replicate the style and complexity of those found on the actual ACLS certification exam. These MCQs are presented with one correct answer and several plausible but incorrect options (distractors) to challenge your critical thinking and decision-making skills in high-pressure healthcare scenarios.

ACLS Pretest

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Advanced Cardiac Life Support (ACLS) Certification

ACLS Pretest Questions Answers
Total Items: 30
Time Duration: N/A
Sample Test

1 / 30

1) Drugs useful in the treatment of cardiogenic pulmonary edema include (select all that apply)

A) furosemide

B) verapamil

C) morphine

D) propanolol

E) oxygen

2 / 30

2) Which of the following rhythms is most commonly present in the first minute following a cardiac arrest in adults

A) A. ventricular tachycardia

B) B. asystole

C) C. bradycardia

D) D. ventricular fibrillation

3 / 30

3) Which of the following is a common cause of excessive intrathoracic pressure during CPR?

A) A. Hyperventilation

B) B. Inability to open the victim’s airway

C) C. Inadequate rate of chest compressions

D) D. Frequent interruptions for rhythm/pulse checks

4 / 30

4) During the primary survey, for what length of time should you assess for the presence of a pulse?

A) A. Check for a pulse for no more than 3 seconds.

B) B. Check for a pulse for no more than 5 seconds.

C) C. Check for a pulse for at least 5 seconds but no more than 10 seconds.

D) D. Check for a pulse for at least 10 seconds but no more than 30 seconds.

5 / 30

5) Which of the following is (are) the initial cardiac rhythm(s) typically recorded in an out-of-hospital cardiac arrest?

A) A. Asystole

B) B. Idioventricular rhythm, PEA

C) C. VF, pVT

D) D. pVT, PEA

6 / 30

6) Shockable cardiac arrest rhythms include:

A) A. Asystole and PEA.

B) B. pVT and asystole.

C) C. PEA and VF.

D) D. VF and pVT.

7 / 30

7) The purpose of the primary survey is to:

A) A. Perform a detailed head-to-toe physical examination.

B) B. Determine the number of personnel needed to assist in the patient

C) C. Focus on the patient’s chief complaint/reason for seeking medical assistance.

D) D. Detect the presence of life-threatening problems that require rapid intervention.

8 / 30

8) During which phase of a cardiac arrest is CPR performed?

A) A. No-flow phase

B) B. Prearrest phase

C) C. Low-flow phase

D) D. Postresuscitation phase

9 / 30

9) Upon finding an unresponsive adult patient, you called for help and asked that someone get an AED or defibrillator. Your next action should be to:

A) A. Begin chest compressions.

B) B. Reposition the patient’s head.

C) C. Open the airway and begin rescue breathing.

D) D. Simultaneously look for breathing and feel for a pulse.

10 / 30

10) Which of the following memory aids may be used when evaluating a patient’s level of responsiveness?

A) A. CAB

B) B. AVPU

C) C. ABCDE

D) D. OPQRST

11 / 30

11) A simple face mask:

A) A. Requires a minimum oxygen flow rate of 2 L/min.

B) B. Can only be used in a spontaneously breathing patient.

C) C. Does not permit the mixing of the patient’s exhaled air with 100% oxygen.

D) D. Delivers an oxygen concentration of 70% to 85% at recommended flow rates.

12 / 30

12) What precautions should be taken before giving NTG?

A) A. Make sure the patient’s heart rate is at least 70 beats/min.

B) B. Make sure there is no evidence of a right ventricular infarction.

C) C. Make sure the patient’s systolic BP is more than 140 mm Hg.

D) D. Make sure the patient has not used a diuretic or an antihypertensive medication in the past 24 hours.

13 / 30

13) CPR is ongoing for a 66-year-old man in cardiac arrest. The cardiac monitor reveals asystole. Vascular access has been achieved and an advanced airway has been inserted. Which of the following statements is correct with regard to this situation?

A) A. The depth of chest compressions should be 1.5 to 2 inches.

B) B. Chest compressions should be delivered at a rate of 100 per minute.

C) C. The ratio of chest compressions to ventilations delivered should be 30:2.

D) D. Ventilations should be delivered at a rate of one breath every 6 seconds.

14 / 30

14) Diltiazem may be used:

A) A. Concurrently with IV beta-blockers.

B) B. In the management of symptomatic bradycardia.

C) C. In the management of a stable patient with a wide-QRS tachycardia.

D) D. To control the ventricular rate with atrial flutter or atrial fibrillation.

15 / 30

15) A 49-year-old man is found unresponsive, not breathing, and pulseless. The cardiac monitor reveals monomorphic ventricular tachycardia. The most important actions in the management of this patient are:

A) A. CPR and defibrillation.

B) B. Defibrillation and resuscitation medications.

C) C. CPR and prompt insertion of an advanced airway.

D) D. Synchronized cardioversion and resuscitation medications.

16 / 30

16) The most common adverse effects of giving amiodarone are:

A) A. Nausea and asystole.

B) B. Bradycardia and hypotension.

C) C. Tachycardia and hypertension.

D) D. Blurred vision and abdominal pain.

17 / 30

17) If a patient wakes from sleep or is found with symptoms of a stroke, the time of onset of symptoms is defined as the time:

A) A. Of awakening.

B) B. The patient retired for sleep.

C) C. The patient was last known to be symptom-free.

D) D. The patient was last seen by a health care professional.

18 / 30

18) A patient is unresponsive with spontaneous ventilations at a rate of 4 per minute. Chest movement is barely visible with each breath. A pulse is present. Which of the following oxygen delivery devices would be most appropriate to use in this situation?

A) A. A nasal cannula at 4 L/min

B) B. A simple face mask at 6 L/min

C) C. A nonrebreather mask at 12 L/min

D) D. A BMD with a reservoir at 15 L/min

19 / 30

19) A 35-year-old woman presents with a narrow-QRS tachycardia. She is stable but symptomatic. Vagal maneuvers and an initial dose of adenosine were ineffective. You should now

A) A. Perform synchronized cardioversion.

B) B. Administer 6 mg of adenosine rapid IV push.

C) C. Administer 12 mg of adenosine rapid IV push.

D) D. Administer diltiazem 0.25 mg/kg IV over 2 minutes.

20 / 30

20) A BMD that is used with supplemental oxygen set at a flow rate of 10 to 15 L/min delivers about _____oxygen to the patient when a reservoir is not used.

A) A. 21%

B) B. 40% to 60%

C) C. 60% to 90%

D) D. 90% to 100%

21 / 30

21) Which of the following is true with regard to procainamide?

A) A. Procainamide is a potent vasoconstrictor.

B) B. Procainamide may cause widening of the QRS complex.

C) C. Procainamide is indicated in the treatment of asystole and slow PEA.

D) D. Procainamide is a first-line drug in the management of torsades de pointes (TdP).

22 / 30

22) A 73-year-old woman presents with symptoms of acute stroke 3.5 hours after symptom onset. She has a history of an acute MI 6 years ago, chronic atrial fibrillation, and diabetes mellitus. The patient’s BP is 168/100 mm Hg, her heart rate is 88 to 100 beats/min, and her ventilations are 12 breaths/min. Her National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale (NIHSS) score is 22. Daily medications include lisinopril, metformin, and warfarin. Which of the following statements with regard to fibrinolytic therapy for this patient is true?

A) A. This patient is not a candidate for fibrinolytic therapy because of her age.

B) B. This patient is not a candidate for fibrinolytic therapy because she is hypertensive.

C) C. This patient is not a candidate for fibrinolytic therapy because she is taking an oral anticoagulant

D) D. This patient is not a candidate for fibrinolytic therapy because too much time has lapsed between symptom onset and hospital arrival.

23 / 30

23) Questions 7 and 8 pertain to the following scenario

A 72-year-old woman presented with a sudden onset of shortness of breath and collapsed. After confirming the patient was unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless, CPR was begun.

The cardiac monitor shows the following rhythm.

An IV has been established and the patient is being ventilated with a bag-mask device (BMD). You observe gentle bilateral chest rise with ventilations. Your next action should be to:

A) A. Defibrillate immediately.

B) B. Give 0.5 mg of atropine IV.

C) C. Give 1 mg of epinephrine IV.

D) D. Begin transcutaneous pacing.

24 / 30

24) Questions 7 and 8 pertain to the following scenario

A 72-year-old woman presented with a sudden onset of shortness of breath and collapsed. After confirming the patient was unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless, CPR was begun.

The cardiac monitor shows the following rhythm.

Which of the following ACLS treatment guidelines should be used in the initial treatment of this patient?

A) A. Symptomatic bradycardia

B) B. Narrow-QRS tachycardia

C) C. Pulseless electrical activity (PEA)

D) D. ACSs

25 / 30

25) Questions 3 through 6 pertain to the following scenario

An 89-year-old man is complaining of a “racing heart.” He states his symptoms began while playing a card game with friends. He had an MI 15 years ago and a coronary artery bypass graft 5 years ago. His BP is 140/90 mm Hg and his ventilatory rate is 16 breaths/min. Breath sounds are clear and his tidal volume is adequate. His SpO 2 on room air is 88%

Which of the following statements is true with regard to the management of this patient?

A) A. The patient is unstable. Sedate the patient and defibrillate as quickly as possible.

B) B. The patient is stable. Administration of IV verapamil is recommended for termination of the rhythm.

C) C. The patient is stable. Administration of IV adenosine can be used as a therapeutic and diagnostic maneuver.

D) D. The patient is unstable. Because there are recognizable QRS complexes on the monitor, synchronized cardioversion should be performed.

26 / 30

26) Questions 4 through 6 pertain to the following scenario

You have started an IV and placed the patient on the cardiac monitor, which reveals the following rhythm:

This rhythm can best be described as a:

A) A. Regular, polymorphic, wide-QRS tachycardia.

B) B. Regular, monomorphic, wide-QRS tachycardia.

C) C. Irregular, polymorphic, wide-QRS tachycardia.

D) D. Irregular, monomorphic, wide-QRS tachycardia.

27 / 30

27) Questions 4 through 6 pertain to the following scenario

On the basis of the information provided, supplemental oxygen:

A) A. Is unnecessary at this time.

B) B. Is indicated and should be delivered using a nasal cannula.

C) C. Is indicated for all patients who are experiencing a tachycardia.

D) D. Should ideally be administered only after placement of an advanced airway.

28 / 30

28) Questions 2 and 3 pertain to the following scenario

A 65-year-old man is complaining of a sudden onset of dizziness. He is awake, alert, and diaphoretic. The patient states that his symptoms began 45 minutes ago while cleaning his garage. He denies chest pain, shortness of breath, and nausea. The patient’s breath sounds are clear bilaterally. His BP is 78/50 mm Hg, ventilations 18 breaths/min. His SpO 2 on room air is 96%.

The cardiac monitor reveals the following rhythm.

An IV is in place. Your best course of action will be to:

A) A. Defibrillate immediately.

B) B. Administer atropine 0.5 mg IV.

C) C. Administer amiodarone 300 mg IV.

D) D. Administer vasopressin 40 units IV.

29 / 30

29) Questions 2 and 3 pertain to the following scenario

The cardiac monitor reveals the following rhythm.

This rhythm is:

A) A. Junctional rhythm.

B) B. Sinus bradycardia.

C) C. Third-degree atrioventricular (AV) block.

D) D. Second-degree AV block (2:1 AV block).

30 / 30

30) This 12-lead ECG is from a 50-year-old man complaining of chest discomfort.

Which of the following is true regarding this 12-lead ECG?

A) A. This 12-lead reveals no significant findings.

B) B. STE is present in leads V 1 to V 4 . An anterior STEMI is suspected.

C) C. STE is present in leads I, aVR, and V6 . A lateral STEMI is suspected.

D) D. STD is present in leads III and aVF. An inferior STEMI is suspected.

Your score is

Whether you’re a healthcare provider seeking certification or re-certification, a medical student, or a healthcare professional wanting to refresh your ACLS knowledge, this pretest will provide an effective and engaging way to test your understanding, improve your knowledge, and build your confidence in handling cardiac emergencies.

See also:

ACLS Practice Test 2024 Study Guide [UPDATED]