ACLS Review Practice Test 2024 - Online Course Prep & Tutor

CLS Review Practice Test is a kind of beast in its own right. This isn’t your average pop quiz. This is the real deal, designed to challenge you, to push you, and ultimately, prepare you for those life-or-death situations that, God forbid, you may someday encounter.

This test is an amalgamation of multiple-choice questions, scenario-based practical assessments, and critical thinking challenges, all woven together to mimic the real-world scenarios you’d face in an emergency. Each question serves a purpose – to test your understanding of emergency protocols, your knowledge of medications, doses, and routes of administration, and your ability to manage cardiac rhythms and other life-threatening situations.

Do you know your ventricular fibrillation from your ventricular tachycardia? Can you differentiate between asystole and pulseless electrical activity? How about managing acute coronary syndromes and strokes? Yeah, this test’s gonna make sure of that. And then some.

ACLS Review Practice Test

ACLS Exam Review Test

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Advanced Cardiac Life Support (ACLS) Certification

ACLS Review Practice Test
Total Items: 30
Time Duration: N/A
Sample Test

1 / 30

1) In the heart’s conduction system, the ___ receive(s) an electrical impulse from the right and left bundle branches and relay(s) it to the ventricular myocardium.

A) A. Purkinje fibers

B) B. SA node

C) C. AV node

D) D. Atrial pacemaker cells

2 / 30

2) Which cardiac drugs should be avoided in acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema?

A) A. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, such as Lisinopril

B) B. Beta-blockers, such as Propranolol, and Isoproterenol

C) C. Diuretics, such as Furosemide

D) D. Vasodilators, such as Nitroglycerin

3 / 30

3) Bradycardia not responding to atropine should be treated with isoproterenol 1 mg in 250 mL D5W infused wide open.

A) True

B) False

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4) In the treatment of an 80-kg adult in ventricular tachycardia with a pulse, which of the following schedules of lidocaine is preferred?

A) A. 80 mg IV bolus followed by an infusion at 2–4 mg/min

B) B. 160 mg IV bolus every 10 minutes up to a total of 500 mg

C) C. 160 mg IV bolus followed by an infusion at 6 mg/min

D) D. 400 mg IV bolus followed by an infusion at 1–2 mg/min

5 / 30

5) Dopamine at low doses (1–2 mcg/kg/min) will cause:

A) A. elevated blood pressure

B) B. renal vasoconstriction

C) C. renal vasodilatation

D) D. tachycardia

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6) What is the recommended dose of epinephrine when injected into the adult tracheobronchial tree?

A) A. Same as the IV dose diluted in 5 mL of solution

B) B. 0.5–1 times the IV dose diluted in 10 mL of solution

C) C. 2.0–2.5 times the IV dose diluted in 10 mL of solution

D) D. 3.0–3.5 times the IV dose diluted in 20 mL of solution

7 / 30

7) CPR is in progress. Immediately upon diagnosing the following rhythm, what is the treatment?

A) A. administer lidocaine

B) B. precordial thump

C) C. synchronized shock with 200 J

D) D. unsynchronized shock with 200 J

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8) In an unconscious or semiconscious patient an oropharyngeal airway:

A) A. eliminates the need for head positioning

B) B. eliminates upper airway obstruction

C) C. has no value once an endotracheal tube is inserted

D) D. may stimulate vomiting or laryngospasm

9 / 30

9) When ventilating a patient by means of a BMD, rescuers can successfully deliver about __ oxygen without the use of supplemental oxygen.

A) A. 16%

B) B. 21%

C) C. 50%

D) D. 80%

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10) Tracheal intubation:

A) A. Is contraindicated in unresponsive patients.

B) B. Eliminates the risk of aspiration of gastric contents.

C) C. Should be preceded by efforts to ventilate by another method.

D) D. When attempted, should be performed in less than 60 seconds.

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11) A 19-year-old man is unresponsive and not breathing. A slow, weak pulse is present. Your best course of action will be to

A) A. Begin chest compressions.

B) B. Insert an advanced airway.

C) C. Administer oxygen by nasal cannula.

D) D. Insert an oral airway and begin BMV.

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12) Which of the following is not an example of an extraglottic airway device?

A) A. Laryngeal tube

B) B. ETT

C) C. LMA

D) D. Esophageal-tracheal Combitube

13 / 30

13) Signs of adequate ventilation when delivering ventilations with a BMD include:

A) A. The presence of gurgling sounds during ventilation.

B) B. The rise and fall of the patient’s chest wall with each ventilation.

C) C. The collapse of the oxygen reservoir on the BMD with each ventilation.

D) D. The BMD becomes progressively more difficult to compress with each ventilation.

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14) Which of the following will deliver the highest oxygen concentration?

A) A. A nasal cannula with an oxygen flow rate of 4 L/min

B) B. A pocket mask with an oxygen flow rate of 10 L/min

C) C. A simple face mask with an oxygen flow rate of 8 L/min

D) D. A nonrebreather mask with an oxygen flow rate of 10 L/min

15 / 30

15) You and a coworker arrive to find a 78-year-old woman unresponsive in bed. She is not breathing but does have a pulse. You have a pocket face mask on hand that is equipped with an oxygen inlet. After quickly connecting oxygen tubing to the inlet on the mask, you should set the oxygen flow rate at:

A) A. 1 to 2 L/min.

B) B. 4 to 6 L/min.

C) C. 8 to 10 L/min.

D) D. 10 to 12 L/min.

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16) Pulmonary compliance refers to:

A) A. The resistance of the patient’s lung tissue to ventilation.

B) B. The amount of gas inhaled or exhaled during a normal breath.

C) C. The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide during cellular metabolism.

D) D. The amount of air moved in and out of the respiratory tract in 1 minute.

17 / 30

17) Which of the following statements is true about a nasal airway?

A) A. A nasal airway can be placed in either nostril to help maintain an open airway.

B) B. A nasal airway should only be used in unresponsive patients who do not have a gag reflex.

C) C. A correctly sized nasal airway extends from the corner of the patient’s mouth to the tip of the ear lobe.

D) D. When properly positioned, the distal tip of the nasal airway rests in the patient’s trachea.

18 / 30

18) For a deeply unconscious patient in shock, what is the airway of choice?

A) A. endotracheal tube

B) B. esophageal obturator

C) C. oropharyngeal

D) D. nasopharyngeal

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19) You have been unsuccessful in the first two attempts to defibrillate an adult. The energy for the third defibrillation attempt is

A) A. 50 J

B) B. 100 J

C) C. 200–300 J

D) D. 360 J

20 / 30

20) In a patient refractory to atropine, when is external pacing indicated?

A) A. pulseless electrical activity

B) B. agonal rhythm

C) C. symptomatic bradycardia

D) D. symptomatic ventricular fibrillation

21 / 30

21) Which of the following devices may be used to deliver positive pressure ventilation?

A) A. Nasal cannula

B) B. Pocket face mask

C) C. Simple face mask

D) D. Nonrebreather mask

22 / 30

22) An oral airway:

A) A. May result in an airway obstruction if improperly inserted.

B) B. Is usually well tolerated in the responsive or semiresponsive patient.

C) C. Should be lubricated with a petroleum-based lubricant before insertion.

D) D. May inadvertently enter the cranial vault if used in a patient with a craniofacial injury.

23 / 30

23) If no head or neck trauma is suspected, which of the following techniques should health care professionals use to open the airway?

A) ongue–jaw lift

B) Head tilt–chin lift

C) Head tilt–neck lift

D) Jaw thrust without neck extension

24 / 30

24) Intubation with an endotracheal tube: (select all that apply)

A) allows adjunctive ventilatory equipment to be used effectively

B) decreases the risk of aspiration

C) is the first priority in ventricular fibrillation

D) if performed improperly may result in only one lung being inflated

25 / 30

25) An 80-year-old patient presents with severe chest pain. Heart rate is 30 and blood pressure is 60/P mm Hg. The monitor shows sinus bradycardia. Which drug is indicated first?

A) idocaine 75 mg IV bolus

B) isoproterenol infusion at 2–10 mcg/min

C) atropine 0.5–1 mg IV

D) morphine 2–5 mg IV

26 / 30

26) Which of the following leads view the heart in the frontal plane?

A) A. I, II, III, V1 , V 2 , and V 3

B) B. V 1 , V 2 , V 3, V 4 , V 5 , and V6

C) C. I, II, III, aVR, aVL, and aVF

D) D. aVR, aVL, aVF, V 4 , V 5, and V6

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27) Which of the following are the main branches of the left coronary artery?

A) A. Marginal and oblique arteries

B) B. CX and marginal arteries

C) C. Anterior descending and oblique arteries

D) D. CX and anterior descending arteries

28 / 30

28) The period during the cardiac cycle when cells cannot respond to a stimulus, no matter how strong, is called the

A) A. Supernormal period.

B) B. Depolarized period.

C) C. Relative refractory period.

D) D. Absolute refractory period.

29 / 30

29) Which of the following represent ventricular repolarization on the ECG?

A) A. P wave and PR interval

B) B. ST segment and T wave

C) C. PR interval and ST segment

D) D. QRS complex and ST segment

30 / 30

30) When the heart rate is within normal limits, which of the following is used as the reference point from which to estimate the position of the isoelectric line and determine ST segment displacement?

A) A. PR segment

B) B. TP segment

C) C. QT interval

D) D. QRS complex

Your score is

See also:

ACLS Practice Test 2024 Study Guide [UPDATED]